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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 10:04

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How could NASA possibly land on the moon when it's impossible to reach the moon through the Earth's dome? Why are they making up such an obvious lie?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

So I’m getting piano lessons and my teacher wants me to get an upright piano instead of a keyboard. An upright piano is way above my price range, so what do I do? And what’s the difference between an upright piano and a keyboard?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Tulsa, Oklahoma, plans more than $105m in reparations for America's 'hidden' massacre - BBC

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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